PROMPT: In Books I and II of his “Nicomachean Ethics” Aristotle argues that virt

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PROMPT: In Books I and II of his “Nicomachean Ethics” Aristotle argues that virt

PROMPT: In Books I and II of his “Nicomachean Ethics” Aristotle argues that virtue is essentially the same thing as happiness. Explain how. If we were to agree that happiness is best defined as “living well” in the way that Aristotle claims, how could we then counter Thrasymachus and Glaucon’s claims that acting unjustly actually better promotes happiness, so long as one can get away with it. How would Aristotle argue, for example, that Gyges—once he had the ring that will render him invisible—did not live well (i.e. was not happy) after all? What value in your view does Aristotle’s way of thinking about virtue and happiness have for us now? Do we have to believe in a fixed essential human nature to find it useful?

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